But Bach did manage to write secular music in quite different styles to
his church music and you could argue that his 'provincial' church music
transcended its own function as well as its place of origin. Perhaps
English 'art' music (for want of a better word), whether religious or
secular was always 'church' music in its creative origins, and never
managed to transcend its function or its place. Who knows though, maybe
one day they might.
As to your other questions, all are valid as far as I'm concerned and are
each worth
pursuing as evidence for historical interpretation of the societies
involved. Today, as you rightly say, the cultural landscape makes the
distinction between 'high'
art and 'popular' art virtually redundant, and Britain's role in it much
more significant, but that was not the case in the period I'm interested
in, which ends around 1880. Thanks. You have raised some interesting
points. Ann
Ann Beedell
Humanities
Griffith University, Q. Austalia 4111
A.Beedell@hum.gu.edu.au